Showing posts with label STATE PSCs EXAMS. Show all posts
Showing posts with label STATE PSCs EXAMS. Show all posts

GENERAL AWARENESS FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

1. Which of the following exercises the most profound influence, in framing the Indian Constitution?

  • The Government of India Act, 1935
  • Irish Constitution
2. Constitutional monarchy means
      Ans: King 
exercises power granted by the Constitution

3. Grassroots democracy is related to 
  • Devolution of powers 
  • Decentralisation of powers 
  • Panchayati Raj
  • All of them

4. The Government of India Act 1935 was based on
  • Simon Commission
  • Lord Curzon Commission

5. The phrase equality before law used in Article 14 of Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of
   Ans: Britain


6. Who is the first woman chief justice of Supreme Court?
     Ans:M.Fathima Beevi

7. Which one of the following statements regarding the Preamble is correct?
(a) It is not enforceable in a Court of law
(b) The Supreme Court has recently ruled that it is not a part of the Constitution


8. At which place in Bengal was the East India Company given permission to trade and build a factory by the Mughals in 1651?

  • Calcutta
  • Cassim Bazar
9. The tissue in man where no cell division occurs after birth is
  • skeletal
  • nerves
10. In a food chain, the solar energy utilised by plants is only
  • 10 percent
  • 1 percent


LAW NOTES

1. Section 70 and 72 of the Indian Contract Act deal with –
a. Unjust enrichment
b. Frustration


2. When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation, the agreement is a contract which is:
a) void

b) voidable at the option of the consenting party 


3. Shyam contracted to pay to Sunny a sum of Rs.25,000/- if Sunny’s house is gutted in fire. This contract is called:
a) wagering contract
b) contingent contract 

4. If a petition is presented under Section 13-B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, by both parties, a decree of divorce can be passed by the Court:
a) depending upon the urgency pleaded, immediately
b) not earlier than 6 months period has elapsed from the date of presentation of the petition 


5. General rules of succession in the case of a female Hindu is governed by one of the following provisions of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956:
a) Section 8
b) Section 12
c) Section 15


6. Specific performance of part of contract
a) can be enforced
b) cannot be enforced
c) enforced in certain exceptional circumstances 


7. ‘A’ instituted a suit against ‘B’ and ‘C’ on 6.12.2012. ‘D’ was added as a plaintiff on 20.11.2014. When is suit deemed to have been instituted as regards ‘D’?
a) On 6.12.2012
b) On 20.11.2014 subject to court directing any earlier date 


8. Can one of several co-owners of immovable property transfer his share of such property or interest therein in favour of another person who is not a member of the family?
a) yes
b) no 


9. If the donor dies before acceptance of the gift by donee?
a) the gift is valid
b) the gift is void 

10. Under Section 35 of the Indian Stamp Act, no instrument chargeable with duty, unless such instrument is duly stamped, shall be admitted in evidence:
a) except regarding any collateral transaction only
b) for any purpose 


LAW NOTES 1





COMPETITIVE EXAM QUESTIONS PART 23

1. Which one of the following was not main contribution of F.W. Tailor ? 
 (A) Scientific management 
 (B) Time and motion studies 
 (C) Differential wage plan 
 (D) Modern management 

2. Discounted cash flow criteria for investment appraisal does not include
 (A) Net present value
 (B) Benefit-cost ratio 

3. Match the following with the years of establishment/nationalisation.

List – I 
(a) Reserve Bank of India

(b) Nationalisation of 14 Major Commercial Banks

(c) Nationalisation of 6 Commercial Banks

(d) Regional Rural Banks


List – II
i. 1975
ii. 1935
iii. 1969
iv. 1980

Codes :
         (a) (b)  (c) (d)
 (A)   i    iii     ii    iv
 (B)   iii  ii      iv    i
 (C)   iv  iii     i      ii
 (D) ii  iii    iv     i 

4.When has the Population Policy been implemented?
   A. 15 February 2000
    B. 15 February 2001

5. Which one of the following is not a biosphere reserve?
    A. Manas
    B. Nokrek
    C. Pachmarhi
    D. Ranthambore

6. Ramsar Convention was held in :
    A. Afghanistan
    B. Iraq
    C. Iran

7. Which President of India wrote the book ‘The Turbulent Years, 1980-1996’?
A. Pranab Mukherjee
B.  P.J. Abdul Kalam

8. Who was first President of B.J.P. when it was established on 6 April 1980 ?
A. Atal Behari Vajpayee
B. Shyma Prasad Mukherji

9. Who has been recently appointed as Head of BCCI by the Hon’ble Supreme Court?
A. Anurag Thakur
B. Sharad Pawar
C. Vinod Rai

10. Which opposition candidate contested Presidential election against ruling party’s candidate Ram Nath Kovind?
A. Meira Kumar
B. Meira Nair


LAW NOTES

1. For approval or extension of emergency under Article 352 it is required that there should be

  • Resolution by both Houses of Parliament by a majority of total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting.
  • Resolution by both Houses of Parliament by a simple majority of members present and voting.

2. Double Jeopardy means:

    Ans: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.


3. Which one of the following statements is correct?
  • A retired Judge of the Supreme Court cannot plead or act in any Court or before any authority within the territory of India without the permission of the President of India.
  • A retired Judge can appear and plead before the Supreme Court if so required by the Chief Justice of India.
4. Eight Principles of Internal Morality of Law were propounded by
     Ans: Lon L Fuller

5. Who stated: “The life of law has not been logic; it has been experience”?
     Ans: Oliver Holmes

6. Roberto Mangabeira Unger was the main propounder of
     Ans: Critical Legal Studies

7. The Preamble to the UN Charter uses the expression
  • We the People
  • We the Peoples
8. Jus Cogens means:
     Ans: Peremptory norm of International Law

9. The first Jurist to use the word Sociology was
     Ans: Auguste Comte

10. The concept of Dialectical Materialism is a concept commonly associated with which of the following Schools of Thought?
  • Marxism
  • Liberal Theory






LAW NOTES

1. What are the Principal organs of united nations?

  • The General Assembly
  • The Security Council
  • The Economic and Social Council
  • The Trusteeship Council
  • The International Court of Justice
  • The Secretariat
2.  In which case it has been held that prohibition on sale of eggs within municipal area of Rishikesh is not violative of Article 19(1)g of the Constitution ?

Ans:  Om Prakash Vs. State of U.P.


3. The Court which has jurisdiction over election disputes under Section 80 of the Representation of People Act, 1951 is
  • Supreme Court
  • High Court

4. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

  • Child witness : Section 118
  • Dumb witness : Section 120
  • Hostile witness : Section 154
  • Expert witness : Section 45
5. Section 113-B, ‘presumption as to dowry death’ was added to the Indian Evidence Act in 

  • 1983
  • 1986
              Inserted by Act 43 of 1986, sec. 12 (w.e.f. 19- 11- 1986)  

6. International Human Rights Day is celebrated on
    Ans: 10 December

7. On whose recommendation the financial distribution between the ‘Union’ and ‘ States’ takes place?

  • The Finance Commission
  • The National Development Council

8. Under the Constitution, the residuary powers vest with the
  • Union Government
  •  State Government


9. Government imposes taxes to

  • Run the machinery of the state.
  • Check accumulation of wealth among the rich

10. The Provisions regarding division of taxes between Union and the States

  • Can be suspended during Financial Emergency
  • Cannot be suspended under any circumstances
  • Can be suspended only with the consent of the majority of State Legislatures
  • Can be suspended during National Emergency

LAW NOTES 9
LAW NOTES 10


NOTES ON GEOGRAPHY 1


1. Convectional Current Theory postulated by 
    Ans: Arthur Holmes 

2.  The concept of geosynclines was given by

3. The Indian plateau owes its existence due to
     Ans: emergence


4.  A plain formed by wind action
       Ans: Loess plain


5.The westerlies and trade winds are example of ‘_________ winds’. 
  • Mesoscale 
  • Top scale 
  • Macro scale
  • Micro scale

6. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the given codes:


      List – I                        
  a. Normal fault          
  b. Reverse fault          
  c. Lateral fault            
  d. Stege fault             

         List – II
 i. Displacement of both the rock blocks in opposite directions
 ii. Movement of both the rock blocks towards each other
 iii. Displacement of rock block horizontally along fault plane
 iv. When the slopes of a series of faults are in same direction

Codes:

              a           b             c           d
(A)       i           ii          iii         iv
(B)       iv           iii           ii          i
(C)       iii           i             ii          iv
(D)       ii           iii           i           iv


7. What is the correct sequence of the cloud types in a warm front away from its trailing edge?
  • Altostratus – Nimbostratus - Cirrus - Cirrostratus 
  • Cirrostratus - Nimbostratus Altostratus Cirrus 
  • Cirrus – Nimbostratus - Altostratus - Cirrostratus 
  • Nimbostratus-Altostratus-Cirrostratus-cirrus.

8. Guttenberg discontinuity is found between the
  • Mantle and Core
  • Crust and Mantle
9. The zeropoint of the _____ temperature scales represents the temperature at which the molecular motion is presumed to cease.
  • Celsius
  •  Kelvin
10.  Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Stable air resists vertical movement and unstable air ascends freely because of its own buoyancy.

Reason (R): When stable air is forced aloft the clouds that form are widespread and have little vertical thickness.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
  • (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
  • (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
  • Both (A) and (R) are correct.
  • Both (A) and (R) are wrong













LAW NOTES

1. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R), using codes given below, select the correct answer.
Assertion (A) : Termination of service does not amount to retrenchment.
Reason (R) : Amount of loss of retrenchment is more than amount of termination.

Codes :
  • (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
  • (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
  • (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (A) is false, but (R) is true
2.  Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.

     Assertion (A): An agreement not enforceable by law is         said to be void.
     Reason (R): Law has no force.

Codes:
  • Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
  • Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
  • (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (A) is false, but (R) is true.

3.
                Ans: Option D

4. 






         
Ans: Option b  



5. Liability in torts depends on

  • Quantum of damages suffered
  • Involvement of intention
  • Infringement of legal right
  • Effect of public interest

6.  Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below find out the correct explanation.

Assertion I: Disorder of mind which impairs the mental faculties is known as unsoundness of mind as such it acts as defence to a criminal charge.

Reason II: Insanity is the mental abnormality and when it impairs the cognitive faculty and if an act results during that period criminal liability could be exempted.

Codes:


  • By I there is transgression of harmful acts while II refers to established rules of society for which no prosecution stands.
  • Both I and II are correct explanations as per Section 84 of IPC.
  • II is more precise while I is only a supportive factor.
  • The true test of I and II is to apply Mcnaughton’s Rule.

7. The statement "There is no distinction between Public and Private law" is attributed to
  • Comte
  • Spencer
  • Duguit
  • Ehrlich
8. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court directed closing down and demolition of shrimp industries in coastal regulation zone and implement the “precautionary principle” and “the polluter pays principle and held them liable for payment of compensation for reversing the ecology and compensate the individual for loss suffered?

  • S. Jagannath Vs. Union of India.
  • Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum Vs. Union of India.
  • M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India.
  • Church of God (Full Gospels) in India Vs. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association.

9. Which of the following is an essential constituent of negligence?

(1) Defendant was under or legal duty to exercise due care
(2) This duty was owed to plaintiff
(3) Defendant committed breach of such duty
(4) That the breach of such duty was the direct and proximate cause of the damage alleged.

Codes:

  • 1, 2 and 3
  • 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • 2, 3 and 4
  • 1, 2 and 4

10. Marriages of all persons who are citizens of India belonging to various religions should be made compulsory registrable in their respective States where the marriage is solemnised. This was held by the Supreme Court in the case of:

  • Githa Hariharn vs. RBI
  • Seema vs. Ashwani Kumar
  •  John Vallamathom vs. Union of India
  • None of the above










COMPETITIVE EXAM QUESTIONS PART 21

1. The law relating to prisoners of war has been codified by Geneva 

  • Convention
  • Vienna Convention

2. National and State Disaster Management Authority is constituted under
        Ans: Disaster Management Act, 2005

3.The document drawn by a debtor on the credit agreeing to pay a certain sum of money is called…..
  • Cheque 
  • Demand draft 
  • Bill of Exchange 
  • Promissory note 
4. Cheque in circulation for more than six months from the date of the cheque is a

  • Post dated cheque
  • Anti dated cheque
  • Stale cheque
  • Bearer cheque
5. The document which can be used only for local payment is? 
     Ans: A banker’s cheque 

6. Consensus ad idem means…..
  • Nearest cause 
  • Honesty 
  • Identity of minds 
  • none of these 

7. Crossing of the cheque can be made by
  • Drawer only
  • Banker only
  • Any holder
  • None of these
8. Who was the author of the book 'Mudrarakshas'?
  • Kalidas
  • Vishakadatta
  • Banabhatta
  • Jayadev
9. In the year 2002 the Competition Act was enacted replacing
  • Trade Marks Act
  • Copy Right Act
  • Contract Act
  • MRTP Act
10. The scientist responsible for developing atomic energy in India
  • C.V. Raman
  • H.J. Bhava



LAW NOTES

1. A contract to pay B Rs. 10,000 if B's house is burnt the contract is
  • Void Contract
  • Contingent Contract
2. Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 deals with
     Ans: Relevance of admissions in civil cases

3. The word “Ltd.” after the name of a business enterprise denotes:

  • That it is a limited liability company 
  • That it is an unlimited liability company 
4. What will be the effect as to mistake as to law in force on agreement?
     Ans:Not voidable

5. . Match the following offences with the correct legal provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

          List – I         List – II
I. Acid Attack     1. S. 354-A
II. Voyeurism     2. S. 354-D
III. Sexual           3. S. 326-A
Harassment
IV. Stalking         4. S. 354-C

     Codes :
      I  II  III    IV
  • 3 4    1     2
  • 3 4     2      1
  • 4 3     1      2
  • 4 2     1      3
6. Easement is a right in rem or personam?
     Ans: in rem

7. Rescission cannot be granted
  • where restitution to the original position is not possible
  • where the contract stands ratified
  • in severable contracts
  • all the above
8. For his commission or remuneration an agent has a 
  • GENERAL LIEN
  • PARTICULAR LIEN
9. How many types of punishments are prescribed in the IPC?
    Ans: 5

10. Threat to commit suicide amounts to 
        Ans: coercion 

MODEL NOTES FOR JUDICIAL EXAM - 103

1. A Judicial Magistrate dismissed a private complaint u/s 203 CrPC. The aggrieved complainant approached the Chief Judicial Magistrate for ...